I own a property which is subject to a right-of-way servitude and I would like to know if I can also have use of the driveway in question.
It allows my neighbour to reach his property and is accessed by a remote gate on the street that is controlled by him.
I do not use the driveway to enter my property and I realise that I cannot restrict access for my neighbour.
But as the access road is on my property, surely I have the right to use it as well, even if it is for pedestrian use?
I believe the remote gate should be moved to the border of my neighbour’s property, allowing me access to the driveway.
Thank you,
Driveway Dilemma
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