I would like to know at what point a purchasing party receives full control of a property in order to receive the benefits of ownership.
A purchasing party has paid a 50% share in a property held in an estate.
The property is being rented and that party is collecting the full monthly rental even though the property has not been transferred into their name.
There is no indication that the estate has been wound up.
Can you advise if this is a legitimate situation?
Puzzled by Purchase
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